If the loan is "unsecured" and you (not the buyer) are the obligor on the loan, it is difficult to see how the buyer of the residence could have any potential liability for loan. It is not the buyer's debt, and it is not secured by the buyer's home. Given these "facts", the buyer should not have recourse against you, since he has no damages - to wit - no obligation to pay the loan (only you do).
On the other hand if the loan was secured, and it was not paid off at close, and the title company gave him a clean report, the buyer should be seeking recourse against his title insurer.
There is something wrong with this factual picture.
S' O'Keefe
Answered on Jan 21st, 2013 at 10:49 AM