There is a great deal of confusion about this issue. So first, the rules. A note and mortgage encompass two different types of liability. There is a note. This is a personal promise to pay. Absent the discharge in bankruptcy, the note holder can sue on the note and obtain a judgment that can be collected from any non-exempt asset that you, the debtor own. In virtually all first mortgage cases, lenders do not to this because they can be paid from the property with much less difficulty. Holders of notes secured by a 2nd mortgage can also sue on the note and ignore the mortgage. This happened more and more often in the 2008 - 10 period because after the first mortgage, there was nothing left. Absent the discharge in bankruptcy, the note holder could sue or turn it over for collection. There is another liability. The mortgage. The mortgage is a lien on the property. Unless it is stripped off or something else affirmatively is done to it, it passes through bankruptcy untouched. This means that the mortgage holder can foreclose the mortgage. The remedy is limited to the property because the note has been discharged. In many states, foreclosure of a residential mortgage cannot result in a deficiency but that is another question and is state dependent. In any event, the mortgage can be foreclosed if it is not paid. So, when the mortgage is paid in full, you should own the property. Selling it, or not selling it is something that you need to decide but that is a totally different question. One further point, and it is important. Yes you got your discharge. However, is your case still open for administration? If so, there are other questions that you need to address with your bankruptcy lawyer.
Answered on Aug 21st, 2014 at 8:17 AM