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With a person receiving (SSDI), they are obviously perceived to be disabled. Can this correlation be viewed as SSDI being an actual protected (ADA) attribute of a disabled person. Example; There is a program to help poor people establish a better savings practices. They match your savings $ for $. The catch is you can only contribute "earned income" to the account. This benefit would greatly help disabled people. But since the income would be mostly unearned you would be disqualified from the program, which there are no other alternatives. Are there protections with this scenario? Thanks
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Criminal Defense Attorney serving Toms River, NJ
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Edward J. Dimon
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Discrimination claims are constitutional. Here, you are making the argument that a person is being denied additional benefits because they are disabled. The person receives benefits based upon their disability and now wants additional benefits. The person receives the basic benefits but does not meet the criteria for additional benefits. This would be policy based on legislation and not discrimination.
Answered on Dec 30th, 2015 at 7:57 PM