Appellate Practice Attorney serving New York, NY
It depends on whether the buyer has sufficient "minimum contacts" with Texas to make him subject to its jurisdiction. Since the buyer now lives in Texas, he clearly has sufficient contacts with it to be sued there, UNLESS the agreement he had with your husband provided that Indiana (or some other venue) was the only place where contractual disputes could be litigated. Even then, the buyer may well waive that right, since a Texas litigation is more convenient for him as well as you.
Answered on Jul 08th, 2013 at 3:42 PM