More details to this question:
My husband (OH) entered into a contract with an out of state (CA)attorney, but did not date the agreement. On his end, can this be used as a reason to break contract with his attorney? The way I see it, if there is no date on the contract, there is no way to prove the first date of representation and therefore bill for hours. Any insight would be appreciated. Thank you.
1 ANSWER
I don't think you have a good argument. The important thing is that the agreement was signed, the date is unimportant, and even if it were important the attorney can prove it through his/her testimony. Also, even without an agreement, the attorney would probably be entitled to recover the fair market value of the services he/she has rendered.
Answered on Aug 16th, 2017 at 9:50 AM