My home was purchased in 2009 and is for sale now. I'm currently wanting a divorce. At the time of purchase we were married and at closing the documents state my husbands name and include that he is a married man. We have agreed to split the profit. My question is when the house sells could he run the check and not see a dime. Legally? Since this house was purchased while married and documents state he was married.. Any advice is truly appreciated. Thank you.
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