QUESTION
Do I have a right over a house that I helped on paying but only had my husband’s name on it?
Asked on Nov 25th, 2012 on Divorce - Michigan
11 ANSWERS
Steven D. Dunnings
Yes, hire an attorney.
Answered on Apr 15th, 2013 at 6:51 AM
Family Law Attorney serving Los Angeles, CA
at
Hammers & Baltazar, LLP
Update Your Profile
The answer is probably. If the house was acquired during the marriage, even in your husband's name alone, it may be presumed to be community property. If he owned it prior to your marriage and it was refinanced, the community may have an interest, if he owned it during the marriage and it was not refinanced, the community may still have an interest in the equity. It depends on the facts. An attorney certified in family law is your best bet for getting the answers you want.
Answered on Nov 29th, 2012 at 5:02 AM
Absolutely. If he owned the house before you married him, you are entitled to reimbursement payments equal to a specific formula known as the Moore-Marsden formula. If the house was acquired during marriage with money earned during marriage you are entitled to one-half the net equity in the house. I strongly suggest you make an appointment with an attorney to get more information and assistance on this very important issue.
Answered on Nov 29th, 2012 at 4:37 AM
Michael P. Hughes
It depends upon the facts surrounding this home. In the state of Florida, any property purchased during the marriage (or debt taken on for that matter) are considered marital property/debts. Therefore although a home is titled in only one spouse's name, it will be considered marital property when purchased during the marriage with marital funds. There are certain exceptions to the above rule, but generally that is your answer. Good Luck.
Answered on Nov 29th, 2012 at 4:33 AM
Family Law Attorney serving West Bloomfield, MI
at
Law Offices of Eugene Lumberg and Eric S. Lumberg
Update Your Profile
Yes. You have an equity claim to the house and other property. An attorney can advise you on these issues and make sure your rights are protected.
Answered on Nov 29th, 2012 at 4:28 AM
In IL, this depends on when the house was bought, what did you contribute and how long you have been married.
Answered on Nov 29th, 2012 at 4:22 AM
Yes, you may be entitled to reimbursement of what you paid or a percentage interest in the property. You should consult a family law attorney to review all of the facts and advise you.
Answered on Nov 29th, 2012 at 4:12 AM
Divorce & Separation Attorney serving Menasha, WI
at
Petit & Dommershausen, S.C.
Update Your Profile
Yes, everything is considered marital unless or until a court decides otherwise.
Answered on Nov 29th, 2012 at 4:01 AM
Appellate Attorney serving Grosse Pointe Farms, MI
at
Musilli Brennan Associates, PLLC
Update Your Profile
At the time of a divorce, generally yes.
Answered on Nov 28th, 2012 at 7:24 AM
Divorce/Family Law Attorney serving Carlsbad, CA
at
Anne B. Howard, A Professional Law Corporation
Update Your Profile
Yes. You should see An attorney about this.
Answered on Nov 28th, 2012 at 7:24 AM
Dennis P. Mikko
If you were married while you both contributed to the home and especially if it is the marital home, you would have some interest in the home that would have to be divided if there were a divorce. If both parties contributed to the asset, it is a marital asset.
Answered on Nov 28th, 2012 at 7:23 AM