There is a rebuttable presumption that the home is a marital asset subject to equitable distribution by the court, because it was purchased during the marriage, and is jointly titled. However, you may be able to rebut that presumption and argue that it is a non-marital asset because it was purchased and paid for entirely with non-marital assets (the inheritance), and was jointly titled strictly for estate planning or other reasons, not intended to be a gift of a half interest in the house. You will need an attorney, as this is not generally something most people can successfully do on their own, and there are statutes and case law authorities that will need to be presented and argued to the court.
Answered on Aug 15th, 2013 at 7:36 PM