Would it be reasonable to believe that DOS is appropriate for the following reasons?

I have read that valuation of separate property is usually based on the 'date of trial' with some exceptions to it being date of separation.Would it be reasonable to believe that DOS is appropriate for the following reasons: - It has always been my SP.- While we did live there for a year, a mortgage was paid with CP - principal pay down about $2300.- We moved out over 5 years ago, and it has been rented ever since.- The SP was refinanced a year ago and some CP was used to pay down the loan.- She signed a grant deed stating that I am sole title (when refi'd).- Date of separation was six months ago.I know that M-M calcs can be complicated, but I just want to know if DOS is appropriate in this case. DOS would also make sense, since we both agree that a trial is not wanted (the difference in value between DOS and DOT would likely be less than the expense of the trial).Any comment you would care to share would be greatly appreciated.Thank you.