Take a close look at the grant deed by which you acquired title to the home. Assuming that you and your late husband held title as "joint tenants," you became the sole owner of the home upon your husband's death. All you have to do is record an Affidavit of Death of Joint Tenant, with a certified copy of death certificate attached, at the County's Recorder's Office. (Form attached). At that point, you can sell the house, even though the mortgage is in your husband's name alone as long as you are able to sell it for a price that would be enough to pay off the loan. If you are able to sell the house, you should definitely do so rather than allow it to go into foreclosure. You don't need an attorney. Rather, you should immediately consult with a real estate broker about this (the broker will not charge you anything because he/she will be hoping to get the listing if you decide to sell). If the house is "under water" (loan balance exceeds market value), you would have to get consent from the lender to do a "short sale," meaning the lender agrees to accept the sale price in satisfaction of the mortgage, even though it is less than the balance owed. But, as explained below, you are not personally liable for the loan, so a foreclosure will not affect your credit rating. Therefore, if the house is underwater and you cannot afford the payments, there is no point in going through all the trouble of a short sale. Again, you should really discuss this with a real estate broker. In the unlikely event that the two of you owned the home as "tenants in common," then your husband's share of the ownership passes to whomever he left it to in his will. If he died without a will, then his share goes to his legal heir, which means you. But in that case, you would have to file a probate proceeding to have your ownership of his share confirmed to you by the court. If your husband left his share of the house to you by way of a trust, all you have to do is record an Affidavit of Death of Trustee. If you know you cannot afford to continue the payments, there is no point in making any payments. But even if you do make payments, you are not personally liable for the mortgage balance. If the mortgage was a purchase money loan in California, then you are protected by the antideficiency law, which states that the lender is limited to foreclosing on the house and cannot sue you personally for any deficiency (difference between loan balance an price received at auction after foreclosure). And even if the mortgage does not qualify for antideficiency protection, you are not personally liable because you did not sign the promissory note. If there is no possibility of selling and foreclosure is unavoidable, then instead of just walking away, you should negotiate a "cash for keys" deal with the lender. Many lenders will pay moving expenses or other substantial sums if the owner voluntarily vacates in order to save the time and cost of foreclosure. You can also negotiate the time you will be allowed to move out.
Answered on Oct 31st, 2013 at 1:44 PM