QUESTION
What percentage of the money am I legally entitled to if my mother made me a co-owner of her property?
Asked on May 24th, 2013 on Estate Planning - California
More details to this question:
It was recently sold. She is still alive and taking most of the money.
8 ANSWERS
Commercial Contracts Attorney serving Boise, ID
at
Peters Law, PLLC
Update Your Profile
In a way you are lucky to get any of it. I presume she did that so that if she died, you got the house. So, at best, it was a way to avoid probate. However, since she never really gave you the house, you would be hard pressed to get any of the proceeds.
Answered on May 28th, 2013 at 3:16 PM
Estate Planning Attorney serving Wilmington, DE
at
Reger Rizzo & Darnall, LLP
Update Your Profile
If she only put you as co-owner for convenience purposes, technically it is her asset and you are not entitled to anything. But, if you contributed to the purchase, etc, you may be entitled to something.
Answered on May 28th, 2013 at 11:17 AM
2 Awards
It depends on how, when and why you were made co-owner. If for convenience only, but it was your mother's property that she paid all of the expenses on, likely nothing. You will want to speak with an attorney to discuss the situation and see if there is anything that might belong to you.
Answered on May 28th, 2013 at 12:02 AM
Business Planning Attorney serving Livonia, MI
at
Frederick & Frederick Attorneys at Law
Update Your Profile
Normally, your mother would be entitled to everything, but it depends on how this was done. If she failed to do this properly, you could be entitled to something. If she used a lawyer to set things up, you are probably entitled to nothing.
Answered on May 27th, 2013 at 10:16 PM
3 Awards
It depends how title was held. It is possible that you are not entitled to anything, as well. If you were merely on title for convenience and never contributed to the property you may be entitled to nothing. You should have an attorney review the title and your facts if you are unsure. Best of luck to you.
Answered on May 27th, 2013 at 9:59 PM
Business Law Attorney serving Livonia, MI
at
Gerald A. Bagazinski
Update Your Profile
If you and she owned the property equally you are each entitled to one half of the proceeds. If she paid all the bills, she is entitled to deduct her contribution for your half of the bills. If you have any questions, please contact me.
Answered on May 27th, 2013 at 8:56 PM
Estate Planning Attorney serving Torrance, CA
at
The Law Office of Kelvin Green
Update Your Profile
I think it depends on the reason that you were listed on the tittle and the original arrangement. If it was to avoid probate and you have not put anything into the property I would not expect you get much. It really depends on the reason.
Answered on May 27th, 2013 at 8:56 PM
Trusts Attorney serving Sacramento, CA
at
Law Office of Victor Waid
Update Your Profile
The percentage of the money you are entitled to is directly related to the interest you hold as a co-owner.
Answered on May 27th, 2013 at 8:47 PM