The answer is, that depends. If your husband owned the house outright (no outstanding loan) at the time you got married, and if he has not granted any form of joint title to you since then, the house would be his separate property, period. On the other hand, if there was an existing mortgage or other encumbrance on the property when you got married, and if he and/or both of you have been making payments on the house plus property taxes and insurance from your incomes since then, you would have some share of joint interest in the property the amount of which would be decided by the Court is the dissolution proceeding. On another point, did your husband ever put you on title (grant deed by him to you and him as joint tenants)? If so, that would also seal in joint title to the property.
Answered on May 21st, 2015 at 2:51 PM