If what you describe is actually the existing order, no. Has a deed of transfer been recorded? If not, is the legal description of the property in the decree (in which case, THAT should be recorded). If you are unsure, or there are important facts left out (for example, that no one has paid the mortgage and there is a foreclosure involved here), matters might analyze differently. You really need to consult with a family law specialist, bringing copies of all of the relevant orders, correspondence, and notes as to any oral conversations, to figure this out. Sooner is better.
Answered on Sep 18th, 2014 at 9:27 AM