After a 16 year separation, my ex filed for divorce in 2005. We used a paralegal to file the papers. We have 2 houses, one was a rental property and one was our family home. In the divorce papers, she asked for $1000 per month, but verbally told me don't worry about paying her. She told me to handle the payments on the rental property instead and she would handle the other. I eventually moved in to the rental house, and she remained in the family house. The divorce docs also said that we would settle up on the property at a future time, or if one of us remarried. We are both single. I am now retired, disabled and asked her to settle the properties. Her house is worth much more than mine and she has received a $250,000 inheritance. Her response was she didn't owe me anything because I never paid her the $1000 per month per the divorce decree. Stupid me for trusting her promise that I didn't have to pay it before. In 10 years since the decree, she never said a word about this, but I do have an email she sent when I inquired about future real estate settlement, which she stated that we would settle in the future and no mention that I owed her anything.
You can probably use the family law case to enforce the sale of the community properties. You should probably have an attorney review your judgment to determine the proper course of action.
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