QUESTION
Does marriage negate a morality clause?
Asked on Dec 16th, 2015 on Child Custody - Pennsylvania
More details to this question:
The divorce decree was written in Texas. My husband has a morality clause in his divorce decree stating that no unrelated female with whom he has an intimate relationship with shall be present when the child is in his care. We have since gotten married, and his ex-wife states that we will still be in contempt. Am I right to assume that the wording above is in our favor, as I am now related through marriage?
1 ANSWER
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You raise a good question. This is an issue of contract interpretation, and depends on whether "unrelated" is meant in a biological sense purely, or in a combination of biological and/or matrimonial sense. I could see this issue going either way, but I understand your argument. If a contempt petition is brought, hire a lawyer to defend your rights.
Answered on Dec 26th, 2015 at 10:08 AM