The very short answer is yes because you owned it during the marriage, even the short one. However, even though you owned it during the time of the marriage, the court will take into account who purchased the property and the length of the marriage. Both factors will be very important and it is not likely your soon-to-be ex will be entitled to any claim, unless there are factors not disclosed here.
Answered on Jul 16th, 2014 at 8:26 AM