As a matter of theory, title indicates presumptive ownership. You do not indicate whether community (marital) funds purchased the vehicle, but that seems to be likely, so both parties do have ownership rights in the car. But yes, it is simply a "balance sheet" item - whatever the value is, less the outstanding loan obligation, and it makes sense to either liquidate it, or put it in the column of whichever party is actually able to make the future payments. The other party will be owed half the equity, whatever it is. And of course, if the parties do not agree, the court can and will decide those questions, and can order the car to belong to one party, or the other, even if someone refuses to sign the title documents.
Answered on Oct 30th, 2014 at 11:44 AM