I live in texas and I sold a home that I purchased before we were married. His name was never added to the deed or mortgage.

In Texas, the house would be considered your separate property upon dissolution of the marriage if you can present proof that you bought it before you got maried (which is sounds like you can). However, because you are still married to him, the title company needs his signature because there has not been a divorce and a judicial determination of title to the house. Thus, there has been no judicial determination of whether he should get proceeds from the sale of the house. Technically, he should not get any proceeds. However, since you are still married, he might make a claim for proceeds. Is he trying to get money from the sale? Will either of you file for divorce?