If husband is at fault, am I entitled to half our assets accrued during our marriage of 16 years?

California law does not look at fault in a divorce. Each party is entitled to one-half of all assets and responsible for all debts acquired or incurred during the marriage. The exception to this rule is any asset acquired before the marriage or by gift or inheritance during the marriage. That kind of property belongs solely to the party receiving it . Support is based primarily on incomes of both parties, ability to work of each party and duration of the marriage.

Usually the court orders a 50/50 split of all assets coming to the marriage, but also orders the same split of all debts to the parties. There is no one answer to this questions, all marriage dissolution are evaluated on their merits. You certainly have a legitimate argument for alimony if you are now disabled and there is a difference in your and his incomes.

Case law in Nebraska indicates that upon a divorce of a long term marriage, there will be a division of property between the spouses so that each gets approximately one-half, less what each came into the marriage with or inherited or was gifted during the marriage. He doesn't "owe" you anything but after a 16 year marriage, where you are unable to be employed, it is likely you would be awarded alimony.

If you are in Florida, you are entitled to half of everything acquired during the marriage regardless of any wrongdoing.

In California there is no fault. All the community property should be divided equally and fairly. That would be everything acquired between the date of marriage and the date of separation.