If I am divorcing after 23 years, am I entitled 1/2 of the total investments or just the marital part?

I am not sure what you are asking because of your statement about "(E)arned income contributed to investments". Marital property is property acquired during the term of the marriage. Pre-maritial property is the property acquired before the marriage. If your husband made money on investments during the term of the marriage, you would be entitled to a share of the profits - perhaps 50%, perhaps more or perhaps less. It depends on how property will be divided, and other factors. The one fact that is certain is that you need to discuss this with an attorney. The attorney can interview you so that he or she can accurately determine your situation and can advise you accordingly. The above answer does not create a lawyer/client relationship, nor may it be considered legal advice. The information was intended for entertainment purposes only.