Yes, it is true. As his spouse, she has certain property rights until those are terminated by the judgment of divorce. Even though your father owns the house in his name, by virtue of marriage, certain rights have been bestowed on his wife. It is her residence. Since the home is prior acquired property it is not subject to division as a marital asset, so your father should be able to keep the home.
Answered on Feb 01st, 2013 at 3:22 PM