QUESTION

Is my husband entitled to half of my 401k plan?

Asked on Jul 15th, 2011 on Child Custody - Oregon
More details to this question:
If my husband and I get a divorce is he entitled to half of my 401k? We were previously married for 25 years and got a divorce for about 6 months then we got remarried and have been married for about 3 more years would this make a difference? First divorce he didnt want anything but now he saying he wants half of my 401k..
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24 ANSWERS

Steven D. Dunnings
What did the previous Judgement of divorce say about his entitlement to your retirement?
Answered on Jun 26th, 2013 at 3:06 AM

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Yes it does make a difference. If he did not want it the first time he cannot remarry you and decide that he wants it this time. Once it is waived it is waived.
Answered on Aug 05th, 2011 at 9:51 PM

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Family Law Attorney serving Woodland Hills, CA
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Generally speaking, in California, a spouse is entitled to half of all property acquired during marriage, even a 401K Plan. If your 25 year marriage ended with a proper Judgment and if your husband waived his right to any interest in your 401K Plan at that time, then it seems that he would only have an interest in a portion of the Plan for half of the contributions (and a half interest in the profits or losses generated, if any) made during the second marriage. The existence of a pre/post marital agreement or other facts could result in a different outcome. On a related matter, please note that the income you generate from the plan, when you begin drawing from the plan, could be considered income available for support purposes. This is a potentially complex issue which you should discuss with a family law attorney.
Answered on Jul 21st, 2011 at 1:50 PM

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Bankruptcy & Debt Attorney serving San Diego, CA
He is entitled to 50% of the value of the plan that accrued during marriage. It's a bit complicated so speak to an experienced family law attorney asap.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 8:46 PM

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Probate Law Attorney serving Colorado Springs, CO at John E. Kirchner
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All marital property must be fairly divided; most people view 50/50 as fair, but that is not an absolute rule. And, the fair division applies to the overall, total result - not to each item separately. At a minimum, the contributions to and appreciation in value of your 401k during your re-marriage will be considered marital property, but the characterization of the remaining value will depend in part how the first divorce settlement was handled. Your facts present a complicated situation that will require the assistance of an attorney to examine the original divorce settlement and all of the relevant facts before there can be a clearer answer about your 401k and all other assets are to be handled by a judge, if you and your husband cannot agree on what is fair.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 7:51 PM

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Patricia C. Van Haren
If your previous judgment divided the community property, including the 401K, your husband would only be entitled to of the value accumulated during your second marriage to him. You should take your previous divorce judgment to an attorney to review as it is impossible to determine what rights your husband may have without seeing the previous judgment.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 7:51 PM

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I think you are going to be in for an argument. My OPINION is that he would be entitled only to that portion of your 401(k) that received contributions during your second marriage. But I would expect a battle, depending upon the circumstance. Please see a domestic relations attorney for further planning strategies.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 7:36 PM

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William Guy Pontrello
Yes if earned during marriage.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 7:33 PM

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Roianne Houlton Conner
If he did not request the 401K in the first divorce, then a Court would probably not award him anything in the second divorce.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 7:32 PM

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Medical Malpractice Attorney serving Clermont, FL at Joanna Mitchell & Associates, P.A.
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He would only be entitled to one half of whatever monies have been contributed to the 401k during the current marriage (the past 3 years). The prior one is irrelevant.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 7:19 PM

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Criminal Defense Attorney serving Pittsburgh, PA at Law Office of Jeffrey L. Pollock
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My initial answer if you had not been previously divorced is that, since PA is an Equitable Distribution state, then he would get whatever % of the entire marital estate would be equitable. If there were enough other assets to cover his "proper" %, then maybe your 401K would be safe. Since you were only married for 3 years this time, then his ability to claim a portion of that particular asset would now have to be addressed in light of your "shorter" marriage length in conjunction with all the other relevant
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 6:58 PM

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Family Law Attorney serving Johns Creek, GA
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Whatever was accumulated during the marriage is subject to equitable distribution. Since you have only been married for three years, the portion of your 401k that you had before the remarriage is your pre-marital property.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 6:50 PM

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Family Law Attorney serving Chandler, AZ
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This depends on the way your first divorce orders were written. If you were awarded your 401k in the first divorce, then it became your sole and separate property. That would not change by getting remarried (it would only change if you dismissed the first divorce). This means that he may only be entitled to 1/2 of what you have accumulated during this "second" marriage.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 1:53 PM

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Criminal Defense Attorney serving Tustin, CA
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You have an interesting case. Your spouse is entitled to one half of your 401k during the period of your marriage. However, if your husband in the first divorce agreed in writing to not have any of your 401k then he might only be entitled to the small portion your 401k appreciated since you remarried him. This is the kind of critical thing you need to discuss with an experienced family law lawyer.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 1:51 PM

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Divorce Attorney serving Brookfield, WI
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This is not your typical situation. You would want to speak to an attorney regarding your rights and what can be negotiated.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 1:39 PM

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Family Law Attorney serving Las Vegas, NV at Willick Law Group
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Oh, yes, it makes a difference. Under certain cases (the York case, for instance), in a "double divorce" situation only property accrued after the remarriage is before the court for distribution. Every case is different, however, and your best bet is a full consultation with qualified counsel.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 1:31 PM

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Adoption Law Attorney serving Honolulu, HI at Naomi Hirayasu Attorney at Law
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He waived any right to the pension at the time of the first divorce. During the second divorce, he should only be entitled to 1/2 of three years worth of the pension. Please contact me if you would like to discuss further.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 1:31 PM

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There is no fixed formula for dividing property and debts in a divorce. All of the property is before the court: your separate property, his separate property, and the community property. The court's obligation is to make a fair and equitable division of that property after considering a number of factors. Some of those factors are: the age of the parties, the health of the parties, the duration of the marriage, each party's education, each party's work history, the nature and extent of separate and community property, and other factors. So, your spouse may be entitled to some of the 401k money or may be entitled to none of it. It will depend on a number of factors.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 1:31 PM

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Was the first divorce in Washington. Then that should be considered a fair and equitable division at that time andevrything prior to your second marriage your separate property. You need an attorney to artfully argue this and research this or the court may think it is looking at a 20 plus year marriage and not a short one.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 1:25 PM

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Family Attorney serving Seattle, WA at Seattle Divorce Services
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Under Washington law, while all property is before the court to decide how it should be divided, as a general rule the court awards each party their separate property (acquired outside of the marriage) and divides the community property (the division is not necessarily in half). Since this marriage has only been for about three years, the community portion of the 401K would only be the part of the 401K that you acquired during that three year period. The portion that you had coming into the marriage should be treated as your separate property. In other words, he would likely only be awarded a small portion of the 401K (or some other offsetting asset).
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 1:01 PM

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Divorce & Separation Attorney serving Menasha, WI at Petit & Dommershausen, S.C.
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Way too in depth of a question for this forum but likely he is entitled depending on first divorce papers.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 1:01 PM

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Glen Edward Ashman
First of all, Georgia does NOT have community property, so 50-50 isn't how Georgia does it. Georgia does have equitable distribution, which means a judge will do what he thinks is fair. That certainly may mean some division. You need a lawyer for a complex case like this. Get one.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 11:57 AM

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Family Law Attorney serving Everett, WA at Burkhalter Law PLLC
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I have seen this "issue" go both ways. Ultimately, the Court will make a fair and equitable division of assets and debts. The Court will consider both separate and community property. A major issue in your case is what was stated in the first divorce decree.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 11:54 AM

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General Civil Trial Practice Attorney serving Beaverton, OR at Vincent J. Bernabei, LLC
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He gets 50% of the 401(k) earned during your second marriage, not 50% of the entire plan.
Answered on Jul 20th, 2011 at 11:54 AM

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