More details to this question:
I filed for divorce. I live and filed in Georgia. Spouse lives in Missouri. We were married in Georgia but he moved to Missouri about 2 years ago. A child is involved. He signed the form for the officer saying that he recived the papers but will not agree to sign divorce papers even though he agrees with the custody and the visitation of the child. I had the mediation waived because we have nothing to split or share. I had court date last week and the judge said he couldn''t grant the divorce because he didn''t have jurisdiction over Missouri. 1. Can I use the form he signed when he recieved the papers as the jurisdiction notice? 2. If I can get him to sign the jurisdiction form,will that be enough for the divorce to be finalized?
1 ANSWER
I think you may have misunderstood the judge. The correct statement is that the court here doesn't
have jurisdiction over a Missouri
resident. Generally, the courts of
this state do not have jurisdiction over someone who does not reside here. However, there are scenarios under which the
court does have jurisdiction over nonresidents of the state. It's not a simple or quick answer, but an
attorney can assist you with that.
More than likely you cannot use the form he signed when he
was served to gain jurisdiction over him.
If you can get him to consent to the jurisdiction of the court, then
that should be enough for the court to exercise jurisdiction over him and to
finalize the divorce.
Answered on Apr 24th, 2012 at 9:14 AM