Property acquired prior to marriage is the separate property of the person who acquired it. It is unclear from your question if there were principal reduction payments made during the marriage, but if the property was purchased outright prior to marriage, then it is wholly separate property. As such, he is wrong that he should receive his initial investment back. It is entirely his property and you would receive nothing. Given that the facts are extremely important to this issue and each case is unique, I strongly suggest talking with a family law attorney prior to working out an agreement on the division of this asset.
Answered on Apr 28th, 2016 at 5:24 PM