There are not specific statutes stating exactly that point. General landlord/tenant law might apply if only one person has an ownership interest in the residence, but in the likely even that both do, the matter is probably one of the power of the divorce courts to enter temporary and permanent orders, including orders for temporary exclusive possession of the former marital residence under the local rules. For a brief explanation, see the discussion posted at http://www.willicklawgroup.com/preliminary-matters-and-motions/.
Answered on Oct 18th, 2015 at 12:00 PM