That would depend if you purchased the house prior to or during the marriage. If prior to, the house is YOURS and he should not be able to get any part of it. If during the marriage, the house is marital property and is owned 50x50 regardless of title. If he wants to stay in the home, you should condition that on having him taking over the loan under his sole name, putting title in his name alone and paying you 1/2 of the market value. If you stay, same rules apply for you. If the lender won't qualify either one of you ALONE, ask the Court to force the sale of the home and divide the proceeds.
Answered on Jul 15th, 2015 at 4:12 PM