Your statement that you purchased the home "together" suggests that "marital" or joint funds were utilized to consumate the purchase of the home. In addition, I will assume that you and your husband did not enter into an antenuptial or post-nuptial agreement and the home was purchased during the marriage. Pursuant to 750 ILCS 5/503, "marital property" means all property acquired by either spouse subsequent to the marriage, excepting "non-marital property". Your question does not suggest facts that would support the contention that the home should be deemed non-marital. You appear to have a viable claim that the home be deemed "marital" property notwithstanding the stated fact that the home is in your husband's name.
Paul Chatzky, Esq.
Answered on Jan 26th, 2016 at 10:45 AM