Not enough information. If both parties appeared in the Colombian action, and the divorce there otherwise complied with basic tenets of Due Process (notice and an opportunity to be heard, basically), then if the divorce is valid there, it should be considered valid here. If you are not sure, bring all facts, and papers, in for a consultation with this office or that of some other family law specialist and get a detailed analysis of your specific facts.
Answered on Jun 24th, 2014 at 6:57 PM