QUESTION

Would a house that was paid in full 4 months after a marriage be considered joint property in the event of an eventual divorce?

Asked on Dec 10th, 2012 on Family Law - Texas
More details to this question:
State of Tx. At the time of marriage there were 2 children who have now left home.
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1 ANSWER

No. Inception of title establishes ownership when house is purchased. However, you may have a reimbursement claim if separate or community property funds were used to pay the house off.
Answered on Dec 12th, 2012 at 11:19 AM

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