Appellate Practice Attorney serving New York, NY
I think so. In the states in which I practice (Texas not yet being one of them), the agreement you describe would not have to be in writing, although it would be much easier to prove if it was. Also (although this doesn't really apply to your situation because you have already performed under the agreement), if the understanding was that you would not have a binding agreement until there was a writing, and there was no writing, there would be no agreement. Also, you say you have an email where your ex agreed to the contract - that's a writing.
Answered on Apr 10th, 2014 at 12:17 PM