QUESTION

There was no implication

Asked on Feb 08th, 2018 on Civil Litigation - Michigan
More details to this question:
I merely stated that him having to take custody of the child is one of the many reasons. This loan was the fathers loan. Son never agreed verbally or in writing to pay it. The father paid the loan off and re-mortgaged his home to do so. If son never agreed, never co-signed, and the abusive father paid it off, how would that be sons responsibility to pay?
Report Abuse

1 ANSWER

Appellate Practice Attorney serving New York, NY
It would not be.  Again, if the court finds that the son never undertook to repay the loan, that it was a gift, then the son will not be liable.
Answered on Feb 09th, 2018 at 8:14 AM

Report Abuse

Ask a Lawyer

Consumers can use this platform to pose legal questions to real lawyers and receive free insights.

Participating legal professionals get the opportunity to speak directly with people who may need their services, as well as enhance their standing in the Lawyers.com community.

0 out of 150 characters