it depends on a number of things. 1) Did the property owner cause the problem? 2) Did the property owner witness the problem? 3) Did someone report the problem to the property owner? 4) If none of the above 3 can be proven, did the problem exist for an unreasonably long period of time before the accident? 5) Whether any of the above 4 can be proven, was the problem visible so that the victim could have avoided encountering the problem? 6) If the victim could have easily avoided the problem by merely paying attention to where they were going, then the probably is no case. Note- just because someone gets hurt on someone else's property does not mean that they are entitled to any recovery. The victim must be able to prove that the fault, if any, of the property owner was a proximate cause of the injuries.
Answered on Aug 02nd, 2013 at 9:16 PM