Well, I’d have to see the contract to be sure I’m not missing something, but breaking down your fact scenario to its most basic form – an entity tried to sell you a home it did not own. That’s not allowed. So, from what you’re saying, I’d say yes you should at least be entitled to what was spent. Now, contracts do not allow for punitive damages, but you could have other damages. However, I need to note, that it is possible that the contract has some language limiting potential damages. I would get into an attorney’s office with that contract sooner rather than later. The details need to be discussed in a confidential environment and that contract needs reviewed by an attorney. Then, you’ll know your legal options and can proceed accordingly.
Answered on Dec 16th, 2013 at 10:33 AM