If she's your ex-wife, you own the property with her as "tenants in common" meaning you each own one-half fo the property. It's just like you own it with any other person. She can sell her individual interest in the property without your consent. You'd still own one-half. Maybe that is what was done. She cannot sell your interest in the property without your participation. If both of your names were on the deed, a typical buyer who knows what a valid deed looks like would have required you to sign the deed. Did your wife sign your name without your consent? Some facts are missing here. You should obtain the new deed and have it reviewed by an attorney who can tell you what actually happened, whether it was legal and, if not, what your options are to try and undo the transaction or get compensaed.
Answered on Feb 09th, 2017 at 5:12 AM