QUESTION

My wife and I bought a home in Colorado in 1996. In 2005 we had to refinance. I was not allowed to be part of the new 1st and 2nd mortgage loans. My w

Asked on Jan 03rd, 2014 on Residential Real Estate - Colorado
More details to this question:
My wife and I bought a home in Colorado in 1996. In 2005 we had to refinance. I was not allowed to be part of the new 1st and 2nd mortgage loans. My wife signed for the loans. She passed away in 2010. I no longer have the ability to pay the mortgage payments each month. My last payments were January 2013. I'm letting the bank foreclose. I know I'm not liable for the mortgage loans so that's not my concern. However, does the county still consider me the owner of the property even though my late wife signed the refi notes? Doesn't that make her sole owner? My concern is payment of property tax. Am I responsible? I moved out in June 2013. The yard became a mess. The HOA fined. The fine has not been paid so the HOA has filed a lien against the property. Am I responsible? Thank you for your help.
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1 ANSWER

Litigation Attorney serving Castle Rock, CO
3 Awards
The ownership of the property is completely separate from the liability to pay the mortgage.  The answer to your question will be determined by whether or not you are listed as an owner on the Deed which was last recorded with the Clerk and Recorder.  
Answered on Jan 03rd, 2014 at 4:38 PM

Call Don at (303) 688-0944 or email at Reception@RobinsonandHenry.com This information is provided AS IS; and does not create Client Relationship.

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