If you made the mortgage, that means you also signed a Note promising to pay the lender whatever the loan amount was together with interest. The lender does not care whether you or your former wife makes the payments. But if the payments cease to be made, the lender will either foreclose on the mortgage or sue on the Note -- or both. Yes, if there is a foreclosure, there will almost certainly be a loss on the re-sale of the property -- and the lender can sue you for that loss.
The fact that the lender has inquired about a deed in lieu of foreclosure is a good sign that it may be willing to accept the property in full satisfaction of the debt. If your former wife got a deed from you in connection with the divorce, the deed in lieu of foreclosure will have to come from her -- but the lender may wish to get a quitclaim deed from you simply to have the comfort that you know of the transaction and that you support the transaction.
Yes, I think you should return the lender's call. an alternative course of action, if your former wife is agreeable, is for you to get a deed from your former wife and then pay the arrearage on the loan. If there is a significant equity in the property, you might be able to sell the house and recover at least some of the equity.
Answered on Aug 18th, 2012 at 3:31 PM