If the loan is secured by real estate then the security interest remains in place and follows the real estate to the new owner. If the spouse succeeds to the ownership of the property then the spouse would have to pay the loan to assure enjoyment of the property. If the spouse the sold the property the debt would have to be paid out of the sale proceeds. The debt is not a personal obligation of the spouse (provided it is not a family debt or the spouse did not join in the obligation as a co-borrower). The spouse could abandon the property or surrender it to the lender. If the loan is a typical mortgage then it is likely that it contains a due on sale clause that gives the lender the right to call the loan when ownership is transferred to a non-borrower. If the loan is a personal obligation of the decedent then it must be paid out of the assets of the decedent's estate, just like any other creditor claim, before the estate assets can be distributed to the heirs and legatees of the decedent. This could result in the forced sale of the property if no other assets are available to pay the claim.
Answered on Mar 06th, 2014 at 2:07 PM