Hunh? Let me make sure I understand. There is real estate. Owner is deceased. Survived by no spouse, only children. Any children who were alive when the owner passed away would have been intestate beneficiaries of the Owner's estate. Any child who predeceased the owner would have no share of the estate. Assuming that a child died after owner died. That deceased child's estate would be entitled to his/her interest in owner's estate. That share would pass according to deceased child's will or intestacy if no will. Confusing enough?
Answered on May 31st, 2017 at 8:48 AM