If there was truly a "preditory loan," there may be a way to have the loan declared null and void. However, there was not enough information given other than it was a "bad loan." This situation requires a review by a competent attorney of all documents and the circumstances surrounding the making of the loan.
As to foreclosure, they may be bluffing. As the lein (i.e. the Mortgage) survived the BK7, upon a default, it can proceed in state court via a Foreclosure. This may or may not occur as there are practical, non-legal considerations. You did not say if there was (or was not) a senior mortgage. If so, this junior mortgage, which remained as a Bankruptcy only discharges the Note, would need to buy-out the 1st Mortgage to receive the proceeds from Sale of the residence. For example, if the FMV of the property is $175,000 and the 1st Mortgage is $150,000 or higher, this does not makes any financial sense. To spend over $150,000 to recoup a portion of $40,000 makes no sense. However, if there is no 1st or if it is "only" about $50,000 and the FMV is the $175,000, the circumstances change. The Foreclosure then makes financial sense to institute; and this lender may not be bluffing.
However, there can be no deficiency as your BK7 protected you from this. This presumes there was no Reaffirmation in the prior BK7 of this debt, which appears to be the case you stated here. Again, the Note, which is your personal promise to pay, was discharged in the BK7. There is, therefore, no Note. Instead, what you have been paying is the Mortgage, which remained as a valid lein on the property.
A larger cash offer may be the solution to this lien's removal, but you need to review all this with an attorney as to your options. A good place to start is your Barr Association to see if it maintains a referral procedure....
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